Quote:
Originally Posted by Lytspeed  Hi Dovla,
I'm not sure what "European format" would be, unless it's just percentages. If it's percentages, it's pretty easy; 4 to 1 odds would be the same as 20% (4 to 1 is the same as one chance in 5, and 1/5*100 = 20%).
Does that make sense? |
?!?!?!?! you now confused me more.. how 4 to 1 can be one chance in 5 ?!
as i'm trying to understand you wanted to say that 5 to 1 is 20% and with that calculation 4 to 1 is 25%.. uh.. if i'm right
but what is 5-2 then?! really hard for me to adjust to these odds but i must.. (we use decimals here.. like 1.25 i think that is 4-1 or 1-4 ..
i mean if you put 10$ on 1.25 odd your winnings will be 2.5$)